Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 29.06.2025 05:03
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
FDA expands approval of Moderna's RSV vaccine to some adults under age 60 - ABC News
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Part toy, part fashion, the arrival of the viral Labubu was a long time in the making - AP News
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
There's no rule.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.